Practice Exam

E5D05

1. What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

• A. Skin effect
• B. Shunt capacitance
• C. Dielectric leakage
• D. Inductance

E8A03

2. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Power at intervals of phase
• B. Discrete impulses in time order
• C. Frequency at different times
• D. Amplitude at different times

E4E12

3. What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?

• A. Switch-mode power supplies
• B. Radar transmitters
• C. Electric fences
• D. Wireless security camera transmitters

E7F11

4. What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

• A. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
• B. Missing codes and jitter
• C. Sample clock phase noise
• D. Data storage transfer rate

E2A06

5. What are Keplerian elements?

• A. High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
• B. Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
• C. Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
• D. Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite

E9C12

6. Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

• A. An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna
• B. A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna
• C. A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna
• D. An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna

E5B06

7. What is susceptance?

• A. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
• B. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
• C. The imaginary part of admittance
• D. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer

E2E01

8. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. Pulse modulation
• B. Spread spectrum
• C. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
• D. FSK

E3A11

9. What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?

• A. 100 miles to 300 miles
• B. 1,200 miles
• C. 10 miles to 50 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

E9B04

10. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 38 dB
• B. 28 dB
• C. 3 dB
• D. 15 dB

E7C07

11. Which describes a Pi-L network?

• A. A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
• B. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
• C. A network with only three discrete parts
• D. A Phase Inverter Load network

E9F05

12. What is microstrip?

• A. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• B. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• C. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• D. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies

E6E05

13. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

• A. 0.5 dB
• B. 44 dBm
• C. -10 dB
• D. -20 dBm

E3B02

14. What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

• A. 5,000 miles
• B. 7,500 miles
• C. 1,000 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

E6D01

15. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• B. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
• C. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
• D. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied

E7E10

16. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• B. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• C. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
• D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E6C02

17. What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold voltage?

• A. The comparator changes its output state
• B. The reference level appears at the output
• C. The feedback loop becomes unstable
• D. The IC input can be damaged

E8B06

18. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

• A. 47
• B. 0.47
• C. 0.214
• D. 2.14

E8D03

19. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

• A. If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• B. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
• C. Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence
• D. RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors

E8C15

20. What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

• A. Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
• B. Discovery and link establishment protocols
• C. Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
• D. Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems

E7G10

21. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 38
• B. 76
• C. 0.03
• D. 1

E7A08

22. What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

• A. It produces a 1 at its output if any input is 1
• B. It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
• C. It produces a 1 at its output if all inputs are 0
• D. It produces a 0 at its output if all inputs are 1

E5A13

23. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Internal voltages increase
• B. Parasitic effects are minimized
• C. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• D. Fewer components are needed for the same performance

E5C05

24. What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

• A. Near field diagram
• B. Far field diagram
• C. Phasor diagram
• D. Venn diagram

E1B10

25. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• C. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• D. Specific local government channels

E2D02

26. What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?

• A. Grid square
• B. State abbreviation
• C. RST report
• D. Serial number

E1A07

27. What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band?

• A. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• B. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• C. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• D. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E7D04

28. Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?

• A. A series regulator
• B. A series current source
• C. A shunt current source
• D. A shunt regulator

E9D09

29. What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?

• A. To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance
• B. To lower the Q
• C. To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance
• D. To lower the losses

E3C10

30. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

• A. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-ray flare levels
• B. The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic storms
• C. The ratio of X-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
• D. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index

E1C04

31. What is an IARP?

• A. An indication of increased antenna reflected power
• B. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
• C. A permit that allows US amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
• D. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC

E0A02

32. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits

E7B10

33. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

• A. Feedback
• B. Self bias
• C. Load resistors
• D. Voltage divider bias

E2B04

34. How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

• A. Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
• B. Color lines are sent sequentially
• C. Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line
• D. Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier

E1D11

35. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Only those of Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications course
• D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1F03

36. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur station
• B. It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC
• C. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
• D. Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less

E6B07

37. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Excessive inverse voltage
• B. Insufficient forward voltage
• C. Charge carrier depletion
• D. Excessive junction temperature

E4D09

38. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
• B. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
• C. To store frequencies that are often used
• D. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received

E4C08

39. An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

• A. One-half of the maximum sample rate
• B. The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
• C. One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size
• D. The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter

E9G09

40. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

• A. Constant-SWR circles
• B. Radiation-pattern circles
• C. Transmission line length circles
• D. Coaxial-length circles

E2C02

41. Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?

• A. NEC
• B. ADIF
• C. ARLD
• D. OCF

E1E08

42. To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Employees of the VE
• C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
• D. Friends of the VE

E7H13

43. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a GPS signal reference
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• D. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

E4B06

44. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

• A. 75 watts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 112.5 watts
• D. 125 watts

E9H07

45. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• B. Eliminate harmonic reception
• C. Increase the front-to-side ratio
• D. Absorb signals from the reverse direction

E6A10

46. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 5
• B. 4
• C. 2
• D. 6

E4A06

47. What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?

• A. A false, jittery low-frequency version of the waveform is displayed
• B. Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
• C. Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveform
• D. The waveform DC offset will be inaccurate

E9A05

48. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• B. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
• C. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
• D. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna

E9E06

49. Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?

• A. 62 ohms
• B. 50 ohms
• C. 75 ohms
• D. 90 ohms

E6F10

50. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Indium arsenide
• B. Cadmium sulfide
• C. Silicon
• D. Selenium