Practice Exam

G2B01

1. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
• B. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
• C. Nets have priority
• D. QSOs in progress have priority

G5A04

2. Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

• A. Admittance
• B. Reluctance
• C. Conductance
• D. Reactance

G1A03

3. On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

• A. 160 meters
• B. 12 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 20 meters

G5B10

4. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 12.2 percent
• B. 20.6 percent
• C. 10.9 percent
• D. 25.9 percent

G8A05

5. What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

• A. Frequency modulation
• B. Power modulation
• C. Amplitude modulation
• D. Phase modulation

G0A08

6. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
• B. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
• D. All these choices are correct

G1C01

7. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 2000 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G4D06

8. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 12 dB
• B. 15 dB
• C. 6 dB
• D. 18 dB

G8B04

9. What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

• A. Reactance modulator
• B. Multiplier
• C. Balanced converter
• D. Mixer

G2D09

10. Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

• A. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
• B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
• C. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
• D. All these choices are correct

G6B12

11. Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

• A. RCA Phono
• B. BNC
• C. PL-259
• D. Type N

G4B11

12. Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

• A. Transmitter
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Receiver
• D. Antenna and feed line

G1B03

13. Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Observation of propagation and reception
• C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
• D. Automatic identification of repeaters

G7A09

14. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

• A. Symbol 2
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 4

G1E12

15. When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

• A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
• B. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
• C. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
• D. Under no circumstances except for emergencies

G4E08

16. In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

• A. Full-wave bridge
• B. Series-parallel
• C. Shunt
• D. Bypass

G9B11

17. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 263 feet
• B. 132 feet
• C. 84 feet
• D. 42 feet

G9A11

18. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
• B. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
• C. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
• D. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line

G8C13

19. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

• A. Overmodulation
• B. Long path propagation
• C. Backscatter propagation
• D. Insufficient modulation

G5C04

20. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 67 ohms
• B. 150 ohms
• C. 300 ohms
• D. 75 ohms

G4A12

21. Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

• A. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
• B. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
• C. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
• D. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another

G2A06

22. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• C. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

G7C02

23. What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

• A. Frequency modulated RF
• B. Audio extracted from the modulation signal
• C. Double-sideband modulated RF
• D. Audio with equalized frequency response

G0B07

24. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
• B. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• C. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• D. All these choices are correct

G4C05

25. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
• B. The ground rod is resonant
• C. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• D. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

G3A07

26. At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

• A. At any point
• B. Only at the minimum point
• C. At the summer solstice
• D. Only at the maximum point

G2E15

27. Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

• A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
• B. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
• C. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
• D. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

G6A03

28. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

• A. 0.1 volt
• B. 0.7 volts
• C. 1.0 volts
• D. 0.3 volts

G1D10

29. What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. 21 years
• B. 16 years
• C. There is no age limit
• D. 18 years

G2C06

30. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• B. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• C. Sending without error
• D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

G9C12

31. Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
• B. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It does not require any inductors or capacitors

G3C09

32. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Short-path
• B. Scatter
• C. Chordal hop
• D. Faraday rotation

G7B03

33. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is low only when both inputs are high
• D. Output is low when either or both inputs are high

G3B06

34. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• B. They are refracted back to Earth
• C. They pass through the ionosphere
• D. They are attenuated before reaching the destination

G9D02

35. What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Very low
• B. Approximately 300 ohms
• C. Very high
• D. Approximately 50 ohms